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I'm studying magnetic duality and it seems that duality is nearly complete for the exception of the apparent non-existence of magnetic monopoles.

My issue here isn't this one. My issue is that, if they were introduced, the $B$ field could no longer be described solely as the curl of a vector field such as $A$, instead it would need to be the sum of a scalar and a vector potential, as stated by Helmholtz theorem.

And it seems quite intuitive and logical that, in this now completed symmetry, that $E$ would then require both a scalar and vector potential for itself as well.

But I can't find any source mentioning that.

Is my line of thought correct?

Qmechanic
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user2934303
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  • I have some foundational text/eqns showing all of EM comes from biot savat and coulomb. Only. It would not fit in a comment. Doesnt exactly answer your question, but because of what you said youre studying, I thought you might be interested and I could post it in an answer area. (?) – Al Brown Sep 02 '21 at 03:54
  • I wonder about the remaining asymmetry that current creates magnetic fields but not electric. Wouldnt that still remain even if magnetic monopoles? Or..? – Al Brown Sep 02 '21 at 03:57
  • Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/22018/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Sep 02 '21 at 04:01
  • @AlBrown currents of magnetic monopoles would create electric fields exactly like currents of electric monopoles create magnetic fields. – user2934303 Sep 02 '21 at 05:06
  • Oh I see. Thanks for the reply makes sense. – Al Brown Sep 02 '21 at 05:30

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